Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh văn ( có đáp án và hướng dẫn giải đề )
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Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh văn ( có đáp án và hướng dẫn giải đề ) - ( Cao đẳng Nghề Khách sạn Du lịch Quốc tế IMPERIAL ) - Thầy cô giáo Hoàng Thái Dương ( Tổ Anh ) trường THCS - THPT Nguyễn Khuyến san sẻ đề thi thử môn Anh cho các bạn học trò bổ sung tri thức môn học và ôn tập luyện thi tại nhà.
ĐỀ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA
CỦA TRƯỜNG THCS – THPT NGUYỄN KHUYẾN
Mã đề 101: Thời kì làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
- People are surprised that Saudi Arabia has such a small population in comparison for its land and size.
- The intent of the Historical Society is to restore old buildings and the increase of interest in the history of the area.
A. intent of
C. increase of
- Although the Red Cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurses will not let you to give blood if you have just had a cold.
A. from most
B. to give
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
- Joe _________ have apologized for his insult to the teacher, but he didn’t.
- The UNO demanded that chemical weapons _________ internationally.
B. be banned
C. are banned
D. were banned
- When I arrived home, I saw my father talking to a man whom I _________ before.
A. didn’t meet
B. haven’t met
C. wouldn’t meet
D. hadn’t met
- ________ Laura to have more powers of concentration, she would be an ideal manager.
- _________ I am interested in is her considerable expertise in dealing with domestic violence.
- _________ he has retired from work, Mr. Stevenson intends to make a tour to see the world.
B. Now that
C. Because of
- My teacher made a lot of ________ comments on my writing. I learned a lot from him.
- His time for the 100 metres surpassed the previous world _________ by one hundredth of a second.
B. màn chơi
- Children should be taught to be _________ of other cultures.
- Helping to alleviate _________ in developing countries also helps to reduce environmental destruction.
- Many parents and students _________ the school through the difficult times.
A. put on
B. stood by
C. turned up
D. came along
- “Mai broke up with her boyfriend after two years he went to study abroad.” “It sounds like out of sight, out of _________.”
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
- Tony and Laura are planning what they should do in the evening.
Tony: “Let’s eat out tonight!”
Laura: “ ”
B. That’s a nice compliment.
C. I’m glad you like it.
D. That’s a nice idea.
- Steven is in Mrs. Walker’s office and he needs to make a phone call.
Steven: “Could I use your telephone?”
Mrs. Walker: “__________”
A. I’m sorry to hear that.
B. Please, feel miễn phí.
C. Certainly. I do.
D. That’s very kind of you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
- Ships were registered abroad to circumvent employment and safety regulations.
- Throughout history, the status of women has varied in different countries.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
- What are the reasons for the discrepancy between girls’ and boys’ performance in school?
- Once you finish higher education, you must learn to stand on your own two feet.
A. achieve your goals
B. continue your study at college
C. look for a job
D. be dependent on your family
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
- “I’ve got a bad cold because of you,” Daniela said to Ellen.
A. Daniela shared her feeling with Ellen about her bad cold.
B. Daniela accused Ellen of giving her a bad cold.
C. Daniela regretted having a bad cold because of Ellen.
D. Daniela blamed Ellen for her bad cold.
- Without the timely loan from the bank, the company could have gone bankrupt.
A. The bank refused to give the company a loan, so it went bankrupt.
B. The company managed to survive although the bank didn’t give it a timely loan.
C. The bank helped the company out with the timely loan, so it didn’t go bankrupt.
D. The company went bankrupt even though the bank gave it the timely loan.
- Trevor says the boss is friendly, but I believe the reverse is true.
A. Though Trevor says the boss is friendly, I think he is unfriendly.
B. I completely agree with Trevor that the boss is friendly.
C. I don’t believe in Trevor though he says the boss is friendly.
D. That the boss is friendly is believed by both Trevor and me.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
- The tourists didn’t know the danger they were facing. The guide didn’t, either.
A. Neither the guide nor the tourists was aware of the danger they were facing.
B. Both the tourists and the guide were aware of the danger they were facing.
C. Neither the tourists nor the guide was aware of the danger they were facing.
D. Neither the tourists nor the guide weren’t aware of the danger they were facing.
- The food smelt very bad. I didn’t eat it.
A. The food smelt terrible, so I refused to eat it.
B. The food smelt terrible, but I refused to eat it.
C. The food smelt very bad, though I didn’t eat it.
D. I refused to eat the food, so it smelt very bad.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In 1908, there was a huge explosion in Siberia, the cold eastern part of Russia. It destroyed trees for miles around. People could hear the explosion hundreds of miles away. Scientists can now guess the power of this explosion. It was as powerful as the largest nuclear bombs today, but there were no nuclear bombs in 1908. What caused the explosion?
For many years, that was a (31) ________ . Now, scientists think they know the answer: an asteroid caused the explosion. Asteroids are rocks from space. Each year, hundreds of small asteroids hit the Earth. But most of them don’t (32) _________ reach the ground. Asteroids travel at over 12 km per second. At this speed, they create a lot of heat. (33) _________ , most asteroids burn up before they reach the ground. A large asteroid would not burn up. It would hit the ground and make a huge crater in the ground. But there is no crater in Siberia. Scientists think this asteroid was medium-sized. It was too big to burn up, and it was too small to hit the ground. Instead, it exploded about 6 km (34) ________ the ground, so it didn’t make a hole in the ground.
Scientists think (35) _________ asteroids hit the Earth once every two or three hundred years. This could explain many mysteries in history. Many early societies told stories of fire coming from the sky. Early people thought the fire came from angry gods, but perhaps not.
A. In addition
B. As a result
C. As well as
D. Under any circumstances
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In eighteenth-century colonial America, flowers and fruit were typically the province of the botanical artist interested in scientific illustration rather than being the subjects of fine art. Early in the nineteenth century, however, the Peale family of Philadelphia established the still life, a picture consisting mainly of inanimate objects, as a valuable part of the artist’s repertoire. The fruit paintings by James and Sarah Miriam Peale are simple arrangements of a few objects, handsomely colored, small in size, and representing little more than what they are. In contrast were the highly symbolic, complex compositions by Charles Bird King, with their biting satire and critical social commentary. Each of these strains comminuted into and well past mid-century.
John F. Francis (1808-86) was a part of the Pennsylvania still-life tradition that arose, at least in part, from the work of the Peales. Most of his still lifes date from around 1850 to 1875. Luncheon Still Life looks like one of the Peales’ pieces on a larger scale, kits greater complexity resulting from the number of objects. It is also indebted to the luncheon type of still life found in seventeenth-century Dutch painting. The opened bottles of wine and the glasses of wine partially consumed suggest a number of unseen guests. The appeal of the fruit and nuts to our sense of taste is heightened by the juicy orange, which has already been sliced. The arrangement is additive, that is, made up of many different parts, not always compositionally integrated, with all objects of essentially equal importance.
About 1848, Severin Roesen came to the United States from Germany and settled in New York City, where he began to paint large, lush still lifes of flowers, fruit, or both, often measuring over four feet across. Still Life with Fruit and champagne is typical in its brilliance of color, meticulous rendering of detail, compact composition, and unabashed abundance. Rich in symbolic overtones, the beautifully painted objects carry additional meanings – butterflies or fallen buds suggest the impermanence of life, a bird’s nest with eggs means fertility, and so on. Above all, Roesen’s art expresses the abundance that America symbolized to many of its citizens.
- What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The artwork of James and Sarah Miriam Peale
B. How Philadelphia became a center for art in the nineteenth century
C. Nineteenth-century still-life paintings in the United States
D. How botanical art inspired the first still-life paintings
- Which of the following is mentioned as a characteristic of the still lifes of James and Sarah Miriam Peale?
C. Smooth texture
D. Social commentary
- The word “biting” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
- The word “heightened” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
- The word “meticulous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
- All of the following are mentioned as characteristics of Roesen’s still lifes EXCEPT that they ________.
A. are symbolic
B. use simplified representations of flowers and fruit
C. include brilliant colors
D. are large in size
- Which of the following is mentioned as the dominant theme in Roesen’s painting?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In 1972, a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an area as a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than 1 square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.
Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System, managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves, and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrier Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas, whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.
- What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves
B. Various marine conservation programs
C. International agreements on coastal protection
D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments
- The word “intent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
- The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary (in paragraph 2) as an example of a sanctuary that _________.
A. is not well know
B. covers a large area
C. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary
D. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status
- According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established?
A. Before 1972
B. One hundred years before national parks were established
C. After 1987
D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established
- According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT _________.
A. the discovery of several new marine organisms
B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species
C. the protection of coastal habitats
- D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life The word “periphery” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
C. warm habitat
D. outer edge
- The word “these” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
- The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States?
A. Increases in tourism
B. Limitations in financial support
C. The use of marine species as food
D. Variability of the climate
Đáp án đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh Văn – Mã đề 101
|1. C||2. B||3. D||4. A||5. C|
|6. C||7. B||8. C||9. B||10. D|
|11. A||12. A||13. B||14. C||15. D|
|16. D||17. A||18. B||19. C||20. D|
|21. B||22. C||23. A||24. B||25. D|
|26. D||27. C||28. A||29. C||30. A|
|31. C||32. B||33. B||34. A||35. D|
|36. C||37. A||38. D||39. D||40. A|
|41. B||42. C||43. B||44. C||45. B|
|46. D||47. A||48. D||49. C||50. A|
Xem thêm: Hướng dẫn giải đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh văn
TRƯỜNG THCS-THPT NGUYỄN KHUYẾN
TH -THCS -THPT LÊ THÁNH TÔNG
MÃ ĐỀ 102 – ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT MÔN ANH VĂN
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions:
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions:
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions:
Question 5: Because the highway system was built 40 years ago, most of the roads now need to repair.
B. was built
C. most of
D. to repair
Question 6: Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a teacher wants to get someone’s attention in class.
A. Pointing in
D. to get
Question 7: If a student takes a course on Computer Science, it will take him four years doing the course.
B. takes a course
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions”
Question 8: During the five- decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding at
B. holding back
C. holding to
D. holding by
Question 9: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions:
Question 10: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
Question 11: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. taking off
B. setting up
C. growing well
D. closing down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges:
Question 12: “Has an announcement been made about the nine o’clock flight to Paris ?” -“________”.
A. Not yet
B. Yes, it is nine o’clock
C. I don’t think so
D. Sorry, I don’t
Question 13: “I can speak English well enough to apply for that post.” -“______________”.
A. Me neither
B. Me too
C. Me either
D. Me also
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions:
Question 14: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
Question 15: “It can’t be Mike who leaked the document; it might be Tom” said our manager.
A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 16: He took the food eagerly because he had eaten nothing since dawn.
A. He had eaten nothing since dawn although he took the food eagerly.
B. The food was taken at dawn and he had nothing to eat then.
C. He had eaten something before but he took the food eagerly.
D. Having eaten nothing since dawn, he took the food eagerly.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions:
Question 17: I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time.
A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
C. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.
D. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.
Question 18: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions:
Question 19: The marathon, first staged on 1896, _______ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried news of victory from the battle at Marathon to Athens.
C. was commemorated
Question 20: Football is thought ________ in the world.
A. to have played the most popular sport
B. to be the most popular sport
C. to play the most popular sport
D. to have been the most popular sport
Question 21: The number of unemployed people ________ recently.
A. is increasing
B. has increased
C. have increased
Question 22: Many people will be out of ________ if the factory is closed.
Question 23: Neither Bill nor his brothers _______ willing to help their mother with the housework.
Question 24: Do you know the person _________ next to you in the evening class?
A. whose sitting
B. whom sits
D. who sit
Question 25: I can’t ________ of a word he is saying.
A. make sense
Question 26: Tony Blair is believed ________ for Liverpool last week.
A. having left
B. to have left
C. to leave
Question 27:________ is increasing, which results from economic crisis.
Question 28: In the US, the first stage of compulsory education __________as elementary education.
A. to be generally known
B. is generally known
C. generally known
D. is generally knowing
Question 29: It is vital to create a good impression ________ your interviewer.
Question 30: Geometry is the branch of mathematics ___ the properties of time, curves, shapes, and surfaces.
A. it is concerned with
B. that concerned with
C. concerned with
D. its concerned are
Question 31: Her family has gone to Edinburgh to pay their last ______ to uncle Bin who died last week.
Question 32: Japanese, Korean, Russian, Chinese, French and German will be taught at general schools in Hanoi and HCM City before being ________on a large scale throughout the country.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34:
Horace Pippin, as an African-American soldier during World War I, was wounded in his right arm. He discovered, however, that by keeping his right wrist steady with his left hand, he could paint and draw. Pippin was not trained, but his artistic sensitivity and intuitive feel for two-dimensional design and the arrangement of colour and patterns made him one of the finest Primitive artists America has produced. Pippin did a series of paintings on the abolitionist John Brown and one on his war experiences, but he shied away from social issues for the most part and achieved his greatest success with scenes of the people and places of his hometown of West Chester, Pennsylvania. His Domino Players, featuring four women gathered around a wooden table in a simple kitchen setting, is an excellent example of his rural domestic scenes.
Question 33: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about primitive art?
A. It’s two-dimensional
B. Colours and patterns are important
C. Artists do not have to be trained for it
D. It is used mainly for painting portraits
Question 34: Horace Pippin discovered he could paint and draw _________.
A. during World War I
B. when he completed his training
C. when someone reminded him of his artistic sensitivity
D. by holding his right wrist steady with his left hand
Question 35: It may be inferred from the passage that Pippin___________________.
A. had a simple upbringing
B. was obsessed with the subject of abolition
C. was destroyed by his war experiences
D. wanted nothing to do with his past following
Question 36: The word “arrangement” in the passage could best be replaced by _________.
Question 37: With which of the following statements would the author agree?
A. Horace Pippin was a poorly trained ordinary artist.
B. Primitive art is an excuse for lack of training and talent.
C. Horace Pippin made an important contribution to American art.
D. Horace Pippin placed too much emphasis on social issues in his work.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum. Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground, even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold. It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game bird all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own.
Question 38: What is the topic of this passage?
A. Mating rituals of great horned owls
B. Raising a family of great horned owls
C. Habits of young great horned owls
D. Nest building of great horned owls
Question 39: The phrase “a resonant hoot” is closest in meaning to __________________.
A. a sound
B. an offering of food
C. an instrument
D. a movement
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls _________.
A. happens in the fall
B. takes place on the ground
C. involves the male alone
D. in an active process
Question 41: According to the passage, great horned owls _____________.
A. may inhabit a previously used nest
B. are discriminate nest builders
C. need big nests for their numerous eggs
D. build nests on tree limbs
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl’s job?
A. To build the nest
B. To initiate the courtship ritual
C. To sit on the nest
D. To feed the young
Question 43: The phrase “precious charges” refers to _________.
A. the hawks and crows
B. other nesting owls
C. the nest
D. the eggs
Question 44: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT _________.
B. other small birds
C. small mammals
D. nuts and seeds
Question 45: The word “they” refers to
A. the adult birds
B. the wise old men
C. the prey
D. the young birds
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, R, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks:
Without transportation, our modern society could not __(46)__. We would have no metal, no coal and no oil nor would we have any __(47)__ made from these materials. __(48)__, we would have to spend most of our time raising food and food would be limited to the kinds that could grow in the climate and soil of our neighborhood.
Transportation also affects our lives in other ways. Transportation can speed a doctor to the side of a sick person, even if the patients’ lives on an isolated farm. It can take pol ice to the scene of a crime within a moment of being noticed. Transportation __(49)__ teams of athletes to compete in national and international sports contests. In time of __(50)__ ,transportation can rush aid to persons in areas stricken by floods, families and earthquakes.
C. take place
Đáp án đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh Văn – Mã đề 102
|1. B||2. C||3. D||4. B||5.D|
|6. A||7. D||8. B||9. B||10. A|
|11. C||12. A||13. B||14. A||15. C|
|16. D||17. B||18. B||19. A||20. B|
|21. B||22. D||23. C||24. C||25. A|
|26. B||27. C||28. B||29. A||30. C|
|31. C||32. D||33. D||34. D||35. A|
|36. C||37. C||38. B||39. A||40. D|
|41. A||42. C||43. D||44. D||45. D|
|46. B||47. C||48. B||49. C||50. A|
Người soạn đề thi: Giáo Viên Hoàng Thái Dương ( Tổ Anh Văn ) – Trường THCS – THPT Nguyễn Khuyến
Xem thêm: Hướng dẫn giải đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh văn
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- Hướng dẫn giải đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Toán học
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Bạn thấy bài viết Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh văn ( có đáp án và hướng dẫn giải đề ) có khắc phục đươc vấn đề bạn tìm hiểu ko?, nếu ko hãy comment góp ý thêm về Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh văn ( có đáp án và hướng dẫn giải đề ) bên dưới để Cao đẳng Nghề Khách sạn Du lịch Quốc tế IMPERIALNghĩacó thể thay đổi & cải thiện nội dung tốt hơn cho các bạn nhé! Cám ơn bạn đã ghé thăm Website: imperialhotelschool.edu.vn của Cao đẳng Nghề Khách sạn Du lịch Quốc tế IMPERIAL
Nhớ để nguồn: Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh văn ( có đáp án và hướng dẫn giải đề ) của website imperialhotelschool.edu.vn